MCQ Question for Class 12 Biology Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

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Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQ Questions with Answers

Class 12 Biology MCQs with answers are given here to Chapter Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants . These MCQs are based on the latest CBSE board syllabus and relate to the latest Class 12 Biology syllabus. By Solving these Class 12 MCQ, you will be able to analyze all of the concepts quickly in the chapter and get ready for the Class 12 Annual exam.

Learn Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 MCQ with answers pdf free download according to the latest CBSE and NCERT syllabus. Students should prepare for the examination by solving these MCQ Chapter 2 biology class 12 with answers given below.

Question 1. In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by
(a) insects or wind 
(b) water currents only
(c) wind and water 
(d) insects and water.

Question 2. Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200/400 seeds of pea would be
(a) 200/400
(b) 400/800
(c) 300/600
(d) 250/500. 

Question 3. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(a) suspensor 
(b) egg
(c) synergid 
(d) zygote

Question 4. In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
(a) Wheat
(b) Papaya 
(c) Castor
(d) Maize

Question 5. Persistent nucellus is called as _______ and is found in _______.
(a) perisperm, black pepper 
(b) perisperm, groundnut ‘
(c) endosperm, black pepper
(d) endosperm groundnut

Question 6. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is
(a) apospory 
(b) apogamy
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) amphimixis.

Question 7. In angiosperm, the endosperm is
(a) diploid
(b) triploid 
(c) haploid
(d) polyploid

Question 8. In angiosperm, all the four microspores of tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed by
(a) pectocellulose 
(b) callose
(c) cellulose
(d) sporopollenin.

Question 9. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into an
(a) endosperm
(b) embryo sac 
(c) embryo
(d) ovule.

Question 10. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 100 pollen grains?
(a) 75
(b) 100
(c) 25 
(d) 50

Question 11. Double fertilisation was first discovered in 1898 by _______ in Fritillaria and Lilium.
(a) Nawaschin 
(b) Strasburger
(c) Amici
(d) Focke

Question 12. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented by
(a) ovule
(b) megaspore mother cell
(c) embryo sac 
(d) nucellus.

Question 13. Ploidy of ovum of angiosperms is 
(a) haploid 
(b) diploid
(c) triploid
(d) polyploid

Question 14. The role of double fertilisation in angiosperms is to produce
(a) cotyledons
(b) endocarp
(c) endosperm 
(d) integuments.

Question 15. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
(a) xenogamy
(b) geitonogamy 
(c) karyogamy
(d) autogamy.

Question 16. In majority of angiosperms,
(a) egg has a filiform apparatus
(b) there are numerous antipodal cells
(c) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells 
(d) a small central cell is present in that embryo sac.

Question 17. From among the sets of terms given below, identify those that are associated with the gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta 
(b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac

Question 18. Advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) no dependence on pollinators 
(b) vivipary
(c) higher genetic variability
(d) more vigorous offspring. 

Question 19. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
(a) Jackfruit
(b) Banana 
(c) Brinjal
(d) Apple

Question 20. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Spores are gametes
(b) Spores and gametes are diploid
(c) Gametes are always haploid 
(d) Spores are always diploid

Question 21. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
(a) Citrus 
(b) Gossypium
(c) Triticum
(d) Brassica.

Question 22. Apomixis is 
(a) formation of seeds by fusion of gametes.
(b) formation of seeds without syngamy and meiosis. 
(c) formation of seeds with syngamy but no meiosis.
(d) None of the above

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Question 23. Male and female flowers are present on different plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in
(a) papaya 
(b) bottle gourd
(c) maize
(d) all of these.

Question 24. Megasporangium is equivalent to
(a) nucellus
(b) ovule 
(c) embryo sac
(d) fruit.

Question 25. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?
(a) It brings about opening of the pollen tube.
(b) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg. 
(c) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid.
(d) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into the embryo sac.

Question 26. Eight nucleated embryo sac is
(a) only monosporic
(b) only bisporic
(c) only tetrasporic
(d) any of these. 

Question 27. Anther is generally
(a) monosporangiate
(b) bisporangiate
(c) letrasporangiate 
(d) trisporangiate.

Question 28. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shed at
(a) four celled pollen grain
(b) three celled pollen grain 
(c) microspore mother cell
(d) anther.

Question 29. In a cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by
(a) coleoptile
(b) coleorhiza
(c) scutellum 
(d) prophyll.

Question 30. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperatures but not strong acids.
(b) Sporopollenin can be degraded by enzymes.
(c) Sporopollenin is made up of inorganic materials.
(d) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature as well as strong acids and alkalis. 

Question 31. Emasculation is not required when flowers are
(a) bisexual
(b) intersexual
(c) unisexual 
(d) either (a) or (b)

Question 32. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the
(a) placenta
(b) thalamus or petal 
(c) anther
(d) connective.

Question 33. The polyembryony commonly occurs in
(a) tomato
(b) potato
(c) Citrus  
(d) turmeric.

Question 34. One of the most resistant biological material present in the exine of pollen grain is
(a) pectocellulose
(b) sporopollenin  
(c) suberin
(d) cellulose.

Question 35. The portion of embryonal axis between plumule (future shoot) and cotyledons is called
(a) hypocotyl
(b) epicotyl 
(c) coleorhiza
(d) coleoptile.

Question 36. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is
(a) 3 + 3 + 2
(b) 2 + 4 + 2
(c) 3 + 2 + 3 
(d) 2 + 3 + 3.

Question 37. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in
(a) papaya 
(b) cucumber
(c) castor
(d) maize.

Question 38. The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the time of fertilisation is
(a) 8 – celled
(b) 7 – celled  
(c) 6 – celled
(d) 5 – celled

Question 39. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to attract them.
(b) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from flowers. 
(c) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used in the form of tablets and syrups.
(d) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people.

Question 40. Double fertilisation is exhibited by
(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c) angiosperms 
(d) gymnosperms.

Question 41. Double fertilisation is exhibited by
(a) algae
(b) fungi
(c) angiosperms 
(d) gymnosperms.

Question 42. Function of filiform apparatus is to
(a) recognise the suitable pollen at stigma
(b) stimulate division of generative cell
(c) produce nectar
(d) guide the entry of pollen tube. 

Question 43. Study of pollen grains is called
(a) micrology
(b) anthology
(c) palynology  
(d) pomology

Question 44. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as
(a) tegmen
(b) chalaza
(c) perisperm 
(d) hilum.

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