Class 12 Biology Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ with Answer

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Class 12 Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ Questions with Answers

Class 12 Biology MCQ with answers are given here to Chapter 11 Biotechnology Principles and Processes. These MCQs are based on the latest CBSE board syllabus and relate to the latest Class 12 Biology syllabus. By Solving these Biotechnology Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQ, you will be able to analyze all of the concepts quickly in the chapter and get ready for the Class 12 Annual exam.

Learn Biotechnology Principles and Processes Class 12 MCQs with answers pdf free download according to the latest CBSE and NCERT syllabus. Students should prepare for the examination by solving CBSE Class 12 Biology Biotechnology Principles and Processes MCQ with answers given below.

Question 1. The DNA molecule to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called
(a) template
(b) carrier
(c) transformer
(d) vector.

Question 2. c-DNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of
(a) restriction enzymes
(b) reverse transcriptase
(c) DNA polyermase
(d) adenosine deaminase

Question 3. Genetic engineering is possible, because
(a) we can cut DNA at specific sites by endonucleases like DNase I
(b) restriction endonucleases purified from bacteria can be used in vitro
(c) the phenomenon of transduction in bacteria is well understood
(d) we can see DNA by electron microscope.

Question 4. Which of the following are used in gene cloning?
(a) Nucleoids
(b) Lomasomes
(c) Mesosomes
(d) Plasmids

Question 5. Identify the wrong statement with regard to restriction enzymes.
(a) Each restriction enzyme functions by inspecting the length of a DNA sequence.
(b) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic sites.
(c) They are useful in genetic engineering.
(d) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ligases.

Question 6. Which of the following statement is not correct about cloning vector ?
(a) ‘Ori’ is a sequence responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA.
(b) Selectable marker selectively permitting the growth of the non-transformants.
(c) In order to link the alien DNA, the vector needs to have single recognition site for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
(d) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a restriction site present in one of the two antibiotic resistance genes.

Question 7. In an experiment, recombinant DNA bearing ampicillin-resistance gene is transferred into E.coli cells. The host cells are then cultured on a medium containing ampicillin. The result will be
(a) both transformants and non-transformants cannot survive.
(b) both transformants and non-transformants can survive.
(c) transformants only and not the non-transformants can survive.
(d) transformants cannot survive, but non-transformants can not.

Question 8. The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is termed
(a) selectable marker
(b) Ori site
(c) palindromic sequence
(d) recognition site.

Question 9. Given below are four statements pertaining to separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements.
(i) DNA is negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
(ii) DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel whose concentration does not affect movement of DNA.
(iii) Smaller the size of DNA fragment larger is the distance it travels through it.
(iv) Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing UV radiation.
Choose correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 10. Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme restriction endonuclease. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) The enzyme recognises a specific palindromic nucleotide sequence in the DNA.
(b) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at identified position within the DNA.
(c) The enzyme binds DNA at specific sites and cuts only one of the two strands.
(d) The enzyme cuts the sugar-phosphate backbone at specific sites on each strand.

Question 11. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using
(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Cloning vectors
(c) DNA probes
(d) Gene targets

Question 12. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as
(a) vector
(b) plasmid
(c) structural gene
(d) selectable marker.

Question 13. Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using
(a) Restriction enzymes
(b) Cloning vectors
(c) DNA probes
(d) Gene targets

Question 14. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(a) SalI
(b) EcoRV
(c) XhoI
(d) HindIII

Question 15. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are
(a) T – DNA
(b) BAC and YAC
(c) expression vectors
(d) T/A cloning vectors.

Question 16. The introduction of T-DNA into plants involves
(a) exposing the plants to cold for a brief period
(b) allowing the plant roots to stand in water
(c) infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(d) altering the pH of the soil, then heat-shocking the plants.

Question 17. In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used
(a) as selectable markers
(b) to select healthy vectors
(c) as sequences from where replication starts
(d) to keep the cultures free of infection.

Question 18. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called
(a) vector
(b) selectable marker
(c) plasmid
(d) probe.

Question 19. Which one of the following is used as vector for cloning genes into higher organisms?
(a) Baculovirus
(b) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Rhizopus nigricans
(d) Retrovirus

Question 20. There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI. What does “co” part in it stand for?
(a) colon
(b) coelom
(c) coenzyme
(d) coli

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Question 21. Gel electrophoresis is used for
(a) construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
(b) isolation of DNA molecules
(c) cutting of DNA into fragments
(d) separation of DNA fragments according to their size.

Question 22. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (i-iv) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vector/vectors.
(i) Bacterium (ii) Plasmid
(iii) Plasmodium (iv) Bacteriophage
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i) only
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

Question 23. Which of the following steps are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a PCR reaction?
(a) Denaturation of template DNA
(b) Annealing of primers to template DNA
(c) Extension of primer end on the template DNA
(d) All of the above 

Question 24. Restriction endonuclease
(a) synthesizes DNA
(b) cuts the DNA molecule randomly
(c) cuts the DNA molecule at specific sites
(d) restricts the synthesis of DNA inside the nucleus.

Question 25. Human Genome Project (HGP) is closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called as
(a) biotechnology
(b) bioinformatics
(c) biogeography
(d) bioscience

Question 26. A mutant strain of T4 – Bacteriophage, R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two strains R-IIX and R-IIY are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. What may be the possible reason?
(a) Bacteriophage transforms in wild.
(b) It is not mutated.
(c) Both strains have similar cistrons.
(d) Both strains have different cistrons.

Question 27. The most thoroughly studied of the known bacteriaplant interactions is the
(a) cyanobacterial symbiosis with some aquatic ferns
(b) gall formation on certain angiosperms by Agrobacterium
(c) nodulation of Sesbania stems by nitrogen fixing bacteria
(d) plant growth stimulation by phosphatesolubilising bacteria.

Question 28. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following:
(a) Restriction endonuclease
(b) DNA ligase
(c) DNA fragments
(d) E. coli.

Question 29. Maximum number of bases in plasmids discovered so far
(a) 50 kilo base
(b) 500 kilo base
(c) 5000 kilo base
(d) 5 kilo base.

Question 30. DNA precipitation out of a mixture of biomolecules can be achieved by treatment with
(a) chilled chloroform
(b) isopropanol
(c) chilled ethanol
(d) methanol at room temperature.

Question 31. Recombinant DNA is achieved by cleaving the pro-DNAs by
(a) ligase
(b) restriction endonuclease
(c) primase
(d) exonucleases.

Question 32. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from the ends of DNA is:
(a) endonuclease
(b) exonuclease
(c) DNAligase
(d) Hind-ll.

Question 33. Restriction endonucleases are used as
(a) molecular build up at nucleotides.
(b) molecular degradation to DNA breakup.
(c) molecular knives for cutting DNA at specific sites.
(d) molecular cement to combine DNA sites.

Question 34. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
(a) Bacillus subtilis 
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Thermus aquaticus
(d) Thiobacillus ferroxidans.

Question 35. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(a) extension, denaturation, annealing
(b) annealing, extension, denaturation
(c) denaturation, extension, annealing
(d) denaturation, annealing, extension.

Question 36. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
(a) addition of preservatives to the product
(b) purification of the product
(c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
(d) availability of oxygen throughout the process.

Question 37. The DNA fragments produced by the use of restriction endonucleases can be separated by
(a) polymerase chain reaction
(b) gel electrophoresis
(c) density gradient centrifugation
(d) any of the above.

Question 38. Which one is a true statement regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
(a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in recipient cells.
(b) It serves as a selectable marker.
(c) It is isolated from a virus.
(d) It remains active at high temperature. 

Question 39. What is the first step in the Southern blot technique?
(a) Denaturation of DNA on the gel for hybridization with specific probe.
(b) Production of a group of genetically identical cells.
(c) Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme.
(d) Denaturation of DNA from a nucleated cell such as the one from the scene of crime.

Question 40. In vitro clonal propagation in plants is characterized by
(a) PCR and RAPD
(b) Northern blotting
(c) electrophoresis and HPLC
(d) microscopy.

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